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NR 602 Final Exam Week 8
- Turner’s syndrome can be suspected when the patient has primary amenorrhea and
- A 21-year-old woman comes into your practice seeking birth control. She has only recently become sexually active and has consistently used condoms for safe sex. Your history reveals that she does not use tampons during her menses and has very little knowledge about female reproductive anatomy. Based on this information, which of the following birth control choices would be least likely to meet her needs for contraceptive management?
- The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma is
- Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI places her in which of the following categories?
- The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammogram screening beginning at age:45
- A dancer from an adult club down the street comes in for a renewal of her birth control pill prescription. She says that everything is fine. On examination, you find grayish-white vaginal discharge, greenish cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness. All of the following differential diagnoses except?
- Which of the following contraception would be best for a woman with sickle cell anemia?
- During a vaginal examination, you observe bulging of the anterior wall when you ask the patient to bear down. This is most likely a
- When examining the cervix of a 20-year-old-female, you note that most of the cervix is pink but there is a small ring of dark-red tissue surrounding the os. This is most likely?
- A sexually active 18-year-old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria, and a yellow discharge. On exam you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with contact. The most likely diagnosis is
- A 68-year-old female had her last cervical cancer screening done at age 65 and results were normal. She has no history of abnormal screenings. She has recently started having sexual intercourse with a new male partner and asks if she should start having cervical cancer screening again. An appropriate answer would be that she: Does not need to resume either Pap tests or HPV testing.
- A 22-year-old experiences six months of amenorrhea. Laboratory test results include normal prolactin and thyroid-stimulating hormone and negative pregnancy test. The next action will to: (Answer)Administer a progestin challenge test
- A nurse practitioner is screening a female for prescribing contraception for the first time. Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication to estrogen-containing contraception?
- Characteristics of polycystic ovary syndrome include:
- According to USPSTF recommendations, an 80-year-old female should have:
- A 36-year-old- is seen in your office on day 18 of her cycle for her routine annual examination. She has no complaints. Pelvic exam reveals a 9-cm- firm pelvic mass anterior to the uterus. The most likely diagnosis is:
- Typical characteristics of vulvodynia include:
- If you diagnose a cervical gonoccocal infection, which other infection is probably present?
- HPV testing is indicated for a (n)
- A vaginal pH less than 4.5 is an expecting finding in a:
- USPSTF recommendations for routine breast cancer screening include:
- The new ACOG pap smear guidelines reflect a change in all of the following except:
- A 16-year-old- woman has not yet begun menstruating but does have pubic hair. She is best described as having:
- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is usually associated with
- A 17-year-old client presents at the clinic with the following reason for seeking care. “I have been sick for three days. I feel sick to my stomach and I have diarrhea”. Which of the following would be most appropriate to document as her reason for her visit/chief complaint?
- First line treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome is:
- A 24-year-old woman presents with complaints of nontender mass in her left breast that does not change with the menstrual cycle. On examination, you note a freely movable, 0.5 cm x 1 cm, firm, rubbery nontender mass. The most likely diagnosis is:
- According to ACOG guidelines, which of the following physical examination and screening tests should be part of the routine well-woman visit every year for females ages 30 to 39 years?
- In a premenopausal woman, the biggest heart attack risk factor is:
- A 16-year-old patient comes to the office because she has never had a menstrual period. She has normal breast development, scant pubic hair, and a blind vaginal pouch with no palpable uterus or ovaries. The most likely diagnosis:
- What is the position of the uterus when the cervix is on the anterior vaginal wall?
- A 26-year-old woman presents with multiple, painless, umbilicated papules on her mons pubis. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A woman who is currently pregnant has had two full-term deliveries and had one first-trimester abortion would be considered.
- Pelvic findings on examination of a 22-year-old nulliparous woman are uterus 7 cm in length and ovaries 3cmx2x1cm. These findings are consistent with:
- A 66-year-old- woman with a history of pruritus presents with ulceration of the vulva. The most likely diagnosis is:
- Characteristic “strawberry spots” on the cervix may be seen with
- A 45 year-old-female presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain with urinary urgency and frequency for the past three months. The pain is worse during sexual intercourse and relieved somewhat when she urinates. Physical exam reveals suprapubic tenderness as well as tenderness along the anterior vaginal wall and urethra. The remainder of her exam is normal. What best fits these findings?
- Primary dysmenorrhea can best be treated with:
- MRS. Jackson, age, 37 has been on birth control pills for approximately 15 years. She is a smoker, has a blood pressure of 110/70mmHg, and has lipid levels with normal limits. You advise that she should:
- The CDC recommendation for follow-up of a female treated for PID with a recommended outpatient regimen is:
- One of the leading causes of female infertility Stein-Leventhal syndrome is
- Iris is a thirty-two-year-old married woman with three children. She comes in for information on using the copper T intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following would be a contraindication to using this appliance?
- A 26-year-old female has a Pap test report of ASC-US. This is her first abnormal Pap test. Recommended first steps in follow-up would include:
- A 22-year-old female presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge and vulvar itching. On examination, a watery, yellowish-green vaginal discharge is noted along with vulvar and vaginal erythema. The most likely findings on a wet mount examination will be:
- A patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is at increased risk for:
- A 22-year-old-female has a Pap test report of HSIL. Recommended first steps in follow-up would include
- The glands located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice are the:
- The levonorgestrel-releasing IUD may be a better choice than the cooper-releasing IUD for a woman who has
- 58-year-old woman complaints of severe vulvar pruritus. On examination of the vulva, you note the thinning of the epidermis and loss of pigmentation, as well as maculopapular lesions. You suspect the diagnosis may be:
- A 24-year-old female presents to your office with a request for combination oral contraceptives. Her current medications include a bronchodilator for asthma. Management for this client should include advising her that