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SEJPME Exam 1 (475 Question and Answers)

1. The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the combatant commanders (CCDRs) of the _____. (Select all that apply.)
2. The main difference between Dining-In and Dining-Out for members of the Air Force is that spouses and other non-military guests may attend a Dining-In.
3. Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
4. Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at war or fully at peace.
5. If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice.
6. There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United States?
7. The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands.
8. Which of the following are considerations when hosting a formal dinner?
9. The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply capability in hostile or denied areas. c
10. The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues?
11. In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present.
12. During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old rivalries and conflicts?  c
13. The U.S. continues to become more dependent on the global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent network of information technology infrastructures, including the Internet, telecommunications networks, computer systems, and embedded processors and controllers. It is imperative that we safeguard this domain known as _____.
14. In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created.
15. Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
16. Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history?
17. Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____.
18. Devised to survive on a potentially atomic battlefield, vertical envelopment enabled Marines to achieve which of the following?
19. Successful teamwork in the joint environment requires trust, confidence and _____.
20. The Joint Task Force commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a _____.
21. During joint operation planning, joint force commanders should begin to coordinate their activities with other agencies _____.
22. Reserve Component leaders agree that they receive adequate funding to support all levels of operational use identified by Service and Department of Defense plans.
23. The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation.
24. _____ is a hostile environment that often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas.
25. _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces.
26. During the Total Force Fitness ((TFF) Program section of the course, we discussed the importance of leader involvement. Leaders must identify the metrics that will set the right conditions to promote total fitness. In order to accurately assess the TFF program’s effectiveness, metrics must be _____ .
27. To reach the national strategic end state and conclude an operation successfully, commanders must integrate and synchronize stability operations with offensive and defensive operations. Planning for stability operations should begin _____.
28. Which of the following examples embodies Navy traditions and core values of honor, courage, and commitment?
29. Many external factors impact the psychological health of individuals. The culture of the military and its expectations and the _____ cycles require frequent change and adjustment.
30. In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____.
31. What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) a, b, d
32. Frequently a decisive element, the _____ principle of joint operations is based on the legality, morality, and rightness of the actions undertaken.
33. Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partner’s means _____.
34. The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
35.  The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply).
36. Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process?
37. The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast Guard.
38. The aspect of PME that focuses on imparting joint knowledge and attitudes is joint _____.
39. The seizure and defense of naval bases is provided by which branch of the Armed Services?
40. The term joint force commander refers exclusively to the following three types of commanders:
41. Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
42. The _____ organize, train, equip, and provide combat-ready forces to conduct operations as directed by the President and Secretary of Defense.
43. Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can.
44. The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named?
45. Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities.
46. Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
47. _____ is the process used to mitigate operational risks. Although created with military operations in mind, these procedures can be used to plan other activities.
48. Military-political considerations frequently cast special operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the _____ level.
49. Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.)
50. In the Chairman’s White Paper, “America’s Military – A Profession of Arms,” this aspect of the Armed Forces is identified as the foundation of our profession.
51. What WWII conference established the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
52. The 1986 Goldwater-Nicholas Act____.
53. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the Combatant Commander.
54. National Security Agency (NSA) provides which of the following support: (Select all the apply)
55. 55.The North American Aerospace Defense Command(NORAD) is operated by which countries? (Select all that apply.)
56. The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the Combatant Commanders (CCDRs) of which commands? (Select all that apply)
57. ______ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capabilities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will.
58. The ability of the U.S. to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness is the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are_____.
59. The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the ____.
60. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future.
61. The statutory members of the National Security Council are ____.
62. The _____ is the President’s principle forum for considering national security policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials.
63. The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the ____.
64. The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the.
65. The _____ outranks all other offices of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. This officer is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense.
66. A unified or Specified Command with a broad continuingmission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a _____.
67. A _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the SecDef, a Combatant Commander, a Subordinate Unified Commander, or an existing JTF Commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created had been achieved or when it is no longer required.
68. The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders:
69. Joint Force Air Component (JFACC), Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of _____.
70. These commands are established by Combatant Commanders when authorized by the SecDef through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for Unified Commands. They may be established on a geographic area basis such as the United States Forces Japan or on a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific.
71. Combatant Commanders exercise _____ (command authority)) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred.
72. _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
73. The four categories of support are _____.
74. Which of the following are instruments of national power? (Select all that apply.)
75. The relevance of the interagency process at the strategic level to the Combatant Commander and the U.S. military is that the process yields America’s major national security policy decisions.
76. Provides commanders with an increased capability to coordinate with other U.S. Government agencies.
77. The part of the CCRD’s Operation Plan specifies not only the capabilities that military planners have determined the military may need but also the interagency partners’ shared understanding of the situation, as well as the common objectives required to resolve the situation.
78. The four most basic elements of national power?
79. Providing U.S. Government foreign policy perspectives and diplomatic considerations establishes linkages with U.S. embassies and State Department.
80. The interaction that occurs between agencies of the U’S’ Government, including the Department of Defense (DoD), for the purpose of accomplishing the objective?
81. Which organization is the principal policy-making forum responsible for the nation’s security strategy?
82. What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply)
83. Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
84. The National Security Council compromises these three levels of formal committees for coordinating and making decisions on national security issues.
85. The ____________ is the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Security of Defense.
86. The ________ is the principle forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these policies among various government agencies.
87. The concept of _____ highlights the synergistic application of all the instruments of national power and includes the actions of non-military organizations as well as military forces.
88. U.S, military forces are authorized under certain conditions to provide assistance to U.S. civil authorities for disasters, catastrophes, infrastructure protection, and other emergencies. This assistance is known as _____ within the defense community because the assistance will always be in the support of a lead federal agency.
89. It is imperative that the Combatant Commander or JTF Commander coordinate closely with the _____ on military activities in a particular country because, while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
90. The Country Team provides for rapid interagency consolation and action on recommendations from the field. DoD is normally represented on the Country Team by which of the following?
91. _____ are independent, diverse, flexible, grassroots-focused, primary relief providers that are frequently on the scene before U.S. military and will most likely remain long after military forces have departed.
92. In most situations, IGOs and NGOs need which of these military capabilities?
93. The JTF Commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a _____.
94. A particular type of operation is not doctrinally fixed and could shift within the range of military operations, for example a counterinsurgency operation escalating from a security cooperation activity into a major operation or campaign.
95. The range of military operations includes these three categories of operations: (1) military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence: (2) crisis response and limited-contingency operations: and ______.
96. These operations are typically limited in scope and scale and conducted to achieve a very specific objective in an operational area. They include noncombatant evacuation operations, recovery operations, consequence management, strikes, raids, homeland defense, and defense support of civil authorities.
97. Various joint operations such as a show of force or sanctions enforcement support _____ by demonstrating national resolve and willingness to use force when necessary.
98. The purpose of specifying the _____ is to direct every military operation toward a clearly defined, decisive, and achievable goal.
99. The purpose of _____ is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results.
100. Combatant Commanders and subordinate joint force commanders must work with U.S ambassadors (or diplomatic missions), Department of State, and other agencies to best integrate the military actions with the diplomatic, economic, and informational instruments of national power to promote_____.
101. The purpose of _____ is to maintain legal and moral authority in the conduct of operations. It is based on the actual and perceived legality, morality, and rightness of the acions from the various perspectives of interested audiences.
102. _____ helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat is counteraction. It stems from the belief of a potential aggressor that a credible threat of retaliation exists, the contemplated action cannot succeed, or the costs outweigh any possible gains.
103. At the strategic level, _____ encompasses those planning activities , such as continuity of operations and continuity of government, undertaken to ensure DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and SECDEF in a designated national security emergency.
104. Combatingterrorism involves actions taken to oppose terrorism from wherever the threat exists, and encompasses _____ -defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist acts-and _____-offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorism.
105. An operation that employs coercive measures to interdict the movement of certain types of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area is known as _____.
106. The DoD contribution to a unified action effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the USG is called _____.
107. Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve, and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations.
108. Joint force commanders must integrate and synchronize offensive, defensive, and stability operations that compromise major operations and campaigns. Planning for stability operations should begin _____.
109. Although _____ may be the stronger posture, it is the _____ that is normally decisive in combat. Therefore, commanders will normally seek to transition to the decisive operations et the earliest opportunity.
110. Major operation and campaign plans must feature a (n)_____ offensive, defensive, and stability operations in all phases.
111. Joint force commanders strive to isolate enemies by denying them _____. The intent is to strip away as much enemy support or freedom of action as possible, while limiting the enemy’s potential for horizontal or vertical escalation.
112. 112.Preplanned, deterrence-oriented actions carefully tailored to bring an issue to early resolution without armed conflict are known as _____.
113. A joint military operation conducted either as a major operation or a part of a larger campaign to seize and hold a military lodgment in the face of armed opposition for the continuous landing of forces is called ____. These operations may include amphibious, airborne, and air assault operations, or any combination thereof.
114. The ultimate measure of success in peace building is _____. Therefore, joint force commanders seek a clear understanding of the national and coalition strategic end state and how military operations support that end state.
115. The responsibility to plan and coordinate U.S. government efforts in stabilization and reconstruction has been assigned to _____.
116. 116.Pursuantto Executive Order 12656, the _____ is responsible for the protection and evacuation of American citizens abroad and for safeguarding their property.
117. Military operations that apply military force or threaten its use, normally pursuant to international authorization, to compel compliance with resolutions or sanctions designed to maintain or restore peace and order are known as _____ operations.
118. In foreign humanitarian assistance operations, commanders usually establish a _____ because it is critical to working with the participating intergovernmental organizations (IGOs) and nongovernmental organizations (NGOs).
119. Operations conducted to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel, sensitive equipment, items critical to national security, or human remains are known as _____.
120. A military operation to temporarily seize an area, usually through forcible entry, in order to secure information, confuse an adversary, capture personnel or equipment, or destroy an objective or capability is called a _____. It ends with a planned withdrawal upon competition of the assigned mission.
121. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an example od a(n) _____.
122. Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected by.
123. Factors that enhance interoperability are _____.
124. Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partners means _____.
125. The vetting process for participation in multinational operations serves as a mechanism to _____.
126. Factors affecting the military capabilities of nations include_____.
127. When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken to _____.
128. During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____.
129. Main role is deterrence. Should hostilities arise, provides forces for prompt and sustained combat primarily on land.
130. Fills the three main roles: Strategic nuclear deterrence, Deployment of forces overseas, and Security of the Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs).
131. Provides fleet marine forces of combined arms, together with supporting air components, for two purposes: Service with the fleet in the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases, Conduct land operations essential to the prosecution of a naval campaign.
132. Primary role is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operations.
133. Protect the public, the environment, and U.S. economic interests in any maritime region offering service on five areas: Maritime Safety, National Defense, Maritime Security, Mobility, and Protection of National Resources.
134. Organize, train, and equip Special Operations Forces (SOFs) for activities or missions for all the Services.
135. The primary function of the Services and Special Operations Command is to provide forces, each of which is organized, trained, and equipped to perform specific roles.
136. What is the Army’s primary role?
137. Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
138. 138.What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Security Strategy (NSS)? (Select all that apply.)
139. These capabilities compromise the core of the U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in emphasis on those activities that prevent was and build partnerships.
140. Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force Concept, employing combinations of Active Duty and Reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
141. Which of the following are the roles of the U.S. Marine Corps according to Title 10 U.S. Code?
142. Which of the following best defines the benefits of versatility in aerospace power? (Select all that apply.)
143. Aerospace Forces produce synergistic effects that are designed not to exceed separately employed individual forces.
144. Which of the following are among the Coast Guard’s roles? (Select all that apply.)
145. Being transferred by Presidential order to the U.S. Navy for operational purposes
146. The Army can trace its origins to colonial America.
147. Which of the following describes the Army’s regulations, including every detail of the Soldier’s life?
148. During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward stopping old rivalries and conflicts?
149. Which of the lessons learned during the Mexican War did the Union Navy use?
150. Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.)
151. Through which of the following strategies has the U.S. Navy retained its traditional roles while expanding into expeditionary warfare?
152. Why was the participation of the Montford Point Marines in the amphibious assault at Saipan such a historic event?
153. Which of the following are examples of how the Marine Corps has adapted and evolved as an expeditionary force? (Select all that apply.)
154. In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes?
155. During the 1930s, which two essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.)
156. Which of the following problems faced the newly created Air Force in 1947? (Select all that apply.)
157. Which of the following represents highlights of U.S. Air Force history?
158. What Services were established as precursors to the U.S. Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.)
159. USCG has always served under the Security of the Treasury, reflecting its early historical mission.
160. 159.The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine “over the water,” a historical reference to James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
161. Which of the following are considerations when hosting a formal dinner?
162. A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
163. Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies?
164. Which core value does the following tenet represent: make decisions in the best interest of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences?
165. Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.)
166. Which of the following represents Marine core values?
167. While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marin’s name and grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer.
168. Promotions and Re-enlistments are ceremonies requiring formation in this order: (a) Personal awards presented first, (b) Promotion second, and (c) Re-enlistments third.
169. The fallen comrade’s toast at a mess night is the last toast to be given.
170. The newest and lest formal of the dinning traditions, requiring combat dress.
171. A newer custom than Dining-In, which includes spouses and other guests.
172. Formal dinner for the members of the military.
173. Which of the following ceremonies affirms a “Leader among Leaders” in the USAF, using a symbol of truth, justice, and power rightly used?
174. Which of the following is the USCG motto?
175. The United States Coast Guard’s motto is Semper Paratus, meaning “always ready.”
176. Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States?
177. which of the following is NOT one of the major levels of mobilization?
178. Which mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support requirements of any operational mission?
179. _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
180. With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on the _____.
181. Reserve Component units train to a lesser standard than Active Component units.
182. Which type of mobilization entails mobilizing all Reserve Component units in the existing approved force structure, as well as all individual reservists, retired military personnel, and the resources needed to meet requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, and is for the duration of the emergency plus six months?
183. The primary responsibilities of the Air Force Reserve Components, the Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard, include airlift and air refueling.
184. The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws.
185. Which of the following Reserve Components is NOT part of the Department of Defense?
186. Special Operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____objectives.
187. Most special operations forces are _____oriented. This allows them to maintain a cultural awareness and language capability for their assigned areas.
188. Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted with specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets in hostiles, denied, or diplomatically and/or politically sensitive environments is called _____. It differs from other offensive actions in the level of diplomatic or political risk, the operational techniques employed, and the degree of discrimination and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives.
189. Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy.
190. Operations and activities that are conducted to enable a resistance movement or insurgency to coerce, disrupt, or overthrow a government or occupy power by operating through or with an underground, auxiliary, and guerrilla force in a denial are known as _____. It is a core activity is special operations forces.
191. Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command responsible for providing mission-capable operations forces to the geographic combatant commanders.
192. After the attacks, if 9/11, USSCOM assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____.
193. The cornerstone of the Special Forces Group’s capability is the _____. A highly trained team of 12 SF Green Berets.
194. The _____ is a lethal, agile, and flexible, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives.
195. These units support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war and are known as _____ teams.
196. The units manned by Special Warfare Combatant-craft Crewmen who operate and maintain a variety of combatant and other craft for maritime special operations are known as _____.
197. The 193^rd Special Operations Wing of the Pennsylvania Air National Guard provides the holy _____ platform in the Department of Defense with the EC-130 Commando Solo.
198. The Air Force’s Battlefield Airmen or _____ Teams frequently operate with Navy Seals, Army Rangers, and Special Forces in direct action, airfield seizure, and personnel recovery missions in hostile territory.
199. This MARSOC element trains, advises and assists friendly host nation forces – including naval and maritime military and paramilitary forces – to enable them to support their governments’ internal security and stability, to counter-subversion, and to reduce the risk of violence from internal and external threats. It has the capability to form the nucleus of a Joint Special Operations Task Force.
200. A special operations command-forward can transition to a _____.
201. Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner, however, they comprise only a small part of the total force – a little over ____ percent of the total force.
202. In joint SOF mission planning, a demanding fill-up, real-time _____ can mitigate much of the inherent risks of many SOF missions. It is key to the success of complex joint SOF missions.
203. Which of the following is NOT one of the SOF Truths?
204. Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values, the standards for the profession of arms, and _____.
205. This term refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other.
206. The purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service’s capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects on both (i.e., synergy) is known as _____.
207. The concept of “jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development efforts. What does that statement imply?
208. _____ prepares individuals, joint forces, or joint staffs to respond to strategic, operational, or tactical requirements considered necessary by the Combatant Commanders to execute their assigned or anticipated missions.
209. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise disciplined initiative, acting aggressively and independently to accomplish the mission.
210. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise _____.
211. Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification.
212. Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility.
213. This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas.
214. Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
215. Military members are expected to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
216. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes [positively to his or her communities is known as _____. It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be seen in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors.
217. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative.
218. Symptoms of _____ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, marital problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting.
219. Symptoms of _____ include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties.
220. is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force.
221. “The Noncommissioned Officer and Petty Officer: Backbone of the Armed Forces (2013)” states that, “To be successful in building and sustaining [a solid and trustworthy] relationship with officers, NCOs/POs must be _____.”
222. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
223. What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.)
224. Exposure to stressful situations trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative.
225. The _____ is a lethal, agile, and flexible force, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives.
226. 285.The pinning ceremony signifies which of the following?
227. The main idea of the Chairman’s White Paper, “America’s Military – A Profession of Arms” is to:
228. Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.)
229. Because not every nation will agree with …..coalition actions, what is an acceptable workaround to accomplish the mission without offending other nations?
230. _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, self-discipline, flexibility, patience, and tact.
231. Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for their physical security.
232. Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”?
233. Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
234. The U.S. Army and U.S. Navy are under the same jurisdiction.
235. Leaders in a joint environment have no reason to be familiar with the rules and regulations concerning maintaining good order and discipline within their commands including the punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
236. Factors that inhibit interoperability are _____.
237. While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps’ purview.
238. The comprehensive doctrine of air warfare supported the conclusion that high-altitude, daylight bombing of an enemy’s war-supporting industries and transportation systems could win a war.
239. There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. Which one of the following IS NOT one of the eight domains?
240. Which of the following are …..of every Marine in battle? (Select all that apply.)
241. The direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support, including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations is known as _____.
242. 301.Who is …..the “Father of the Coast Guard?”
243. The first step in solving a problem is to _____.
244. The first-ever National Defense Strategy (NDS) was initiated by Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) Rumsfeld in 2005, and then updated in 2008 by SECDEF Gates. However, in 2012, SECDEF Panetta released Sustaining U.S. Global Leadership: Priorities for 21st Century Defense, sometimes referred to as the _____, and widely understood to be the replacement for the NDS. This strategic document was written to identify defense priorities in the face of budget cuts.
245. Joint _____ provides the fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective.
246. 306.What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.)
247. The principle of joint operations …..to ensure the commitment necessary to attain the national strategic end state is _____

SEJPME Exam II

1. Which of the following actions may help overcome the staff organization challenge of integrating communication-related activities?
2. Which of the following statements concerning operational-level branch and sequel planning is TRUE?
3. This critical path involves the use of a joint targeting working group (JTWG) that enables selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate lethal and supporting nonlethal responses.
4. Planning for communication strategy involves the careful alignment of themes and messages with interagency organizations and other stakeholders.
5. The direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support, including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations is _____.
6. Force protection is a required activity throughout each joint operation or campaign phase. This type of operation is a(n) _____ operation.
7. The joint communications system includes synchronization of war fighting functions, such as locating and identifying friendly forces, and supports the conduct of operations. This contributes to _____.
8. Which of the following are challenges commanders face in identifying key audiences? (Select all that apply.)
9. What effect(s) can occur when commanders retain tactical level decision-oriented CCIRs at the operational level in lieu of decentralizing CCIRs …….decision approval levels?
10. Which of the following provides the necessary upfront direction for the synchronization of staff planning efforts for both lethal and nonlethal activities?
11. The principles of personnel support are ….as having a _____ that is _____.
12. The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____.
13. Commanders have ….the need for some form of staff organization that can _____ to inform or influence the audiences in support of desired outcomes. (Select all that apply.)
14. A key function of the J2 is to integrate outside stakeholders into intelligence planning and operations. The J2 can support the Joint Force Commander by integrating _____.
15. Automation technology can be ….to reduce the burden of sorting through large amounts of _____ to enable an analyst to correlate various sets of _____ to make an assessment.
16. Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI ) elements are ….as “enabling”? (Select all that apply.)
17. What is a target?
18. Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
19. The _____ serves as the diplomatically accredited defense attaché (DATT) and chief of the security assistance organization (SAO).
20. Which of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of joint headquarters battle rhythms?
21. Which of the following statement(s) describes the benefit of the adaptive planning process? (Select all that apply.)
22. Which of the following can be described as the most powerful command relationship in terms of gaining access to additional capabilities?
23. Which of the following National Intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence?
24. _____ is the routine contact and interaction between U.S. Armed Forces and another nation’s armed forces, foreign and domestic civilian authorities, and agencies to build trust and confidence.
25. During _____, the Joint Force Commander will identify the operational problems to solve and determine where to focus the staff’s efforts.
26. How can the sustainment community provide better support to the components and the commander’s decision-making?
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding organizing the various staff sections as a sustainment team?
28. The J2 has overall staff responsibility for consolidating and recommending _____.
29. Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)?
30. For the execution of a successful communication strategy, staff synchronization _____. (Select all that apply.)
31. Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE?
32. Which of the following statements describes characteristics of a well-written problem statement that can help focus the staff and subsequent planning process?
33. What is the primary goal of operational design?
34. The _____ is the principal assistant to the President in all matters relating to the DoD.
35. The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly ….to life cycle systems readiness.
36. Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.)
37. What information management (IM) activity is normally a theater-level decision because of its significant second order effects, such as interoperability within the joint force, fielding and pre-mission training?
38. Which of the following are key elements of a communication strategy? sejpme exam
39. Which statement best describes what is meant by the term “battle for the narrative?”
40. Knowledge management (KM) and information management (IM) are two distinct activities that are necessary aspects in today’s headquarters decision-making. Which two overarching insights clearly delineate their distinctions?
41. _____ focus on the enemy or adversary and the operational environment and drive intelligence collection and production requirements. sejpme exam
42. The use of capabilities oriented functional task forces, such as special operations and counter-improvised explosive device (IED) task forces, is a significant evolution in joint task force organization.
43. How can headquarters staff personnel effectively deal with the challenge of unplanned demands from higher headquarters that may affect the battle rhythm?
44. _____ is an operation that encompasses comprehensive civilian and military efforts ….to defeat an insurgency and to address any core grievances.
45. When framing the inter-organizational coordination process, the first question to be ….will usually be: sejpme exam
46. Communication strategy is not a separate or parallel effort, but an integral part of the commander’s overall strategy that ensures a …..understanding of the commander’s vision, mission, and objectives.
47. During Crisis Action Planning, COA _____ is an objective process where the staff considers COAs independently of one another, against a set of criteria established by the Joint Force Commander and staff.
48. The mayor of San Antonio has asked the 502 Wing Commander for security forces and military police from Fort Sam Houston to assist the local police during the annual fiesta events. The mayor wants the military to assist with traffic and crowd control. Can Title 10 military personnel conduct this type of support? sejpme exam
49. The authority to protect the resilience and redundancy of critical civilian infrastructure resides with the National Security Agency (NSA) under which U.S. Code?
50. Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or others, are all steps that ….in order to properly mitigate risk. sejpme exam
51. ______ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). If favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will.
52. the ability of the U.S. to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness of the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are _____.
53. The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the _____.
54. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distribution and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. sejpme exam
55. The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____.
56. The _____ is the President’s principle forum for considering national security maters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. sejpme exam
57. The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____.
58. The _____ outranks all other officers of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. This officer is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. sejpme exam
59. A Unified or Specified Command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is_____.
60. A _____ is a joint force that is …….and so designate by the SecDef, a Combatant Commander, a Subordinate Commander, or an existing JTF Commander to accomplish missions with specific….objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is …..when the purpose for which it was …..has been achieved or when it is no longer ……
61. The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders: sejpme exam
62. Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of _____.
63. These commands are …..by Combatant Commanders when ….by the SecDef through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for Unified Commands. They may be …..on a geographic area basis such as United States Forces Japan or a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific. sejpme exam
64. Combatant Commanders exercise _____ (command authority) over ….forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be …..or transferred. sejpme exam
65. ­­­­_____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authorization direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. sejpme exam
66. The four categories of support are _____.
67. Command authority over ……forces or commands, or military capability of forces made available for tasking, that is …..direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks _____.
68. The command authority …..by a superior commander between subordinate commanders when one organization should aid, protect, complement, or sustain another force is _____.
69. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. sejpme exam
70. The statutory advisers to the National Security Council are the _____.
71. The document, approve by the President, which delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders, is _____.
72. The Joint Staff is under exclusive authority, direction, and control of the _____.
73. Regardless of when or where ….., the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values, the standards for the profession of arms, and _____.
74. This term refers to the aggregate of features and trails that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other.
75. The purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service’s capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects of both (i.e., synergy) is known as _____.
76. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise disciplined initiative, acting aggressively and independently to accomplish the mission.
77. The concept of “jointness” must be ….through continual joint force development efforts. What does that statement imply? sejpme exam
78. _____ prepares individuals, joint forces, or joint staffs to respond to strategic, operational, o tactical requirements considered necessary by the Combatant Commanders to execute their assigned or anticipated missions.
79. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise _____.
80. Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. sejpme exam
81. Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is ….risk modification?
82. This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas.
83. If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice. sejpme exam
84. Military member to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
85. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is _____. It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be ….in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors. sejpme exam
86. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative.
87. Symptoms of _____ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also ….with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, mental problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting.
88. Typical signs of _____ include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties.
89. Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations ….in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
90. ­­­­_____ is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force. sejpme exam
91. The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
92. Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences – both positive and negative.
93. Concussion is a term many service members prefer to use instead of “brain injury” when discussing head injuries (mild traumatic brain injuries or mTBI).
94. U.S. Law, Title 10, USC, Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. sejpme exam
95. U.S. military service is …..on values that U.S. military experience has proven to be vital for operational success. These values adhere to the most idealistic societal norms, are common to all the Services, and represent the essence of military professionalism. The five values we …..that entail “Joint Service” consist of: duty, honor, courage, integrity, and selfless service. sejpme exam
96. Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being …..to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
97. The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. sejpme exam
98. The ­­­­­_____ focuses on planning and execution of operations using operational art to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means.
99. Read the following scenario, and as you read it, think about the 12 Principles of Joint Operations. Each principle applies to the described situation in some capacity, but consider their relative importance for this particular scenario. In the boxes provided below, indicate whether the principle …is MOST RELEVANT or LEAST RELEVANT to the scenario by typing in your response.
100. The following image is a concept map for you to review. Note that there are several empty boxes on the map …..”Question 1″ through “Question 5”. sejpme exam In the boxes provided below, choose the proper concept for each of these empty boxes by typing in your response in the space ….
101. The _____ system provides many things, including means by which the President and the SecDef can receive warnings and intelligence so that accurate and timely decisions can be made.
102. Think about the module you just ….. What are three things you already knew about this material, three things you ….., and three things you would like to learn more about. Record your answers below:
103. As an example of General vs. Specialize Forces, Navy and Air Force Service members, ……to working with ….personnel who are specialized technicians, may approach joint staff work from a more _____ perspective than that of their ground Service member counterparts.
104. A _____ is a series of …..major operations aimed at achieving strategic and operational objectives within a given time and space.
105. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to …..national interests, not only in conflict but through preventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners.
106. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is ….of significant assign components of two or more Military Departments.
107. _____ is the employment of available weapons and other systems to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target. sejpme exam
108. A functional Component Command has many favorable factors …..with it, including reduced span of control, integrated planning, unity of effort, and _____.
109. Differences between the Services in career paths leading up to a joint assignment may surprise new staff Service members in joint assignments. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services?
110. _____ are the broad and enduring purposes for which the Services and the Combatant commands (or CCMDs) were …..by law. sejpme exam
111. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to conduct a sustainable pace of presence operations abroad, including rotational deployments and bilateral and multilateral training exercises.
112. Some services have an emphasis that vacillates between combat, law enforcement, and safety patrols. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services?
113. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is …..by unified combatant commanders, and conducts operations on continuing basis using specified criteria.
114. 432.Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to maintain an arsenal capable of deterring potential adversaries and to assure U.S. allies and other security partners that they can count on America’s security commitments.
115. The _____ exercise ADCON through their respective Service Chiefs over the Service.
116. Technology is often ……against what common analyst concern?
117. Which of the following statements highlights the critical features of intelligence?
118. Analysis is a synthesis of quantitate analysis and qualitative judgment and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations.
119. What is the primary role of the joint force J2?
120. Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply) sejpme exam
121. Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements (select all that apply)
122. After intelligence requirements are ….., the staff reviews existing databases for answers to requirements. Then, if the intelligence requirement does not exist, the _____.
123. What is the definition of collection requirements management?
124. Why does collection planning require the ability to call on a variety of collection sources?
125. Doctrinal, manning, and organizational considerations are what part of the joint intelligence architecture planning process?
126. Intelligence dissemination requirements and procedures must be coordinate through the _____.
127. What role(s) is responsible for providing maps, charts, …..products, and precise geodetic coordinates?
128. The joint intelligence preparation of the environment (JPOE) consists of four steps.
129. Dissemination of information can sometimes be ….by a strategy ….Push and Pull. Pull refers to which of the following: sejpme exam
130. Intelligence definitions: sejpme exam
131. What level of intelligence is produce for the President, Congress, Secretary of Defense, senior military leaders, and combatant commanders?
132. An intelligence report is ….by the JFC detailing the capabilities. And safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent?
133. To be successful, a joint force commander must be able to influence. And coordinate a diverse coalition of joint and multinational forces as well as civilian agencies and groups. What are some of the civilian groups the FRC must consider? Select all that apply.
134. Prior to planning for operations in support of the JFC OPLAN. A briefing is …..to the planning staff concerning the environmental conditions. Layout of adversarial forces and their relationship with rural communities and leaders. As well as the history of relationship between the local population and foreigners. Which one of the ten principles of intelligence does this represent? sejpme exam
135. Assuming the truism that intelligence is imperfect, what is the best way to minimize the obstacles to achieve a high degree of fidelity in the products of intelligence?
136. Which of the following intelligence principles is …..as the process of collecting and examining information from available sources. And intelligence disciplines to derive as complete an assessment as possible.
137. Principles of intelligence:
138. Identify the national intelligence member that has overall responsibility for intelligence support to the President. And the day-to-day management of the intelligence community.
139. Which of the following national intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence?
140. Which of the following intelligence communities is responsible for providing intelligence support. In areas such as human factors analysis, counterterrorism, personal recovery, and noncombatant evacuation operations?
141. The _____ is the primary intelligence organization. That provides support to the combatant commands at the operational and tactical levels. sejpme exam
142. Which of the following non-DoD intelligence communities supports HUMINT collection, all source analysis, and political, economic, and biographic intelligence?
143. The intelligence component of the National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center (NJIOC) provides planning, management. And infrastructure for intelligence working groups and intelligence task forces that provide direct intelligence support during major conflicts.
144. JIPOE Steps:
145. Joint intelligence planning supports joint operation planning and results in the production of what three products?
146. Advance scouts report that a key bridge crossing is being …..by two tank platoons ….by a reinforced infantry brigade. Which of the following type of intelligence does this represent?
147. What principle of intelligence is most susceptible to incomplete information and enemy deception efforts?
148. This intelligence product category forecasts current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations.
149. Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? (Select all that apply.) sejpme exam
150. The JTF J2 should have personnel knowledgeable in foreign disclosure policy and procedures. And should obtain necessary foreign disclosure authorization from DIA as soon as possible.
151. Which of the following roles must be well ….with timelines …..to complete a …product. And able to obtain the aid of external resources in acquiring needed intelligence?
152. Collection activities acquire and extract data from the operational environment. Such that Processing and Exploitation can convert that data into information to be ….during Analysis. And Production to refine into _____ to satisfy Requests for Information (RFI) or the commander’s Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR).
153. What two features distinguish intelligence from information?
154. The Commander’s Critical Information Requirements represent both Friendly Force Information requirements. And _____, which are …..from the intelligence organization and vetted across staff.
155. Military operations vary in scope, purpose, and _____ across a range that spans from military engagement to major operations and campaigns. sejpme exam
156. _____ is the protection of U.S. sovereignty, territory, domestic population, and critical defense infrastructure against external threats and aggressive or other treats as ….by the President.
157. By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can better integrate and _____ subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose.
158. Which of the following are effective means to achieve deterrence? (Select all that apply.) sejpme exam
159. _____prevents an adversarial action by presenting a credible threat of counteraction. This activity can occur during both peace and war.
160. Which of the following statements accurately reflect crisis and limited contingency operations? (Select all that apply,)
161. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities. Delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____.
162. A(n) _____, such as foreign humanitarian assistance. Can be a major operation if the combination of size, scope. And duration requires the commander to phase the operation as a set of tasks, activities. And missions over time.
163. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost. JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations.
164. Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.) sejpme exam
165. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information. Undermining a potential adversary’s will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces.
166. The “Seize the Initiative” phase of joint operations seeks decision advantage by using all available elements of combat power to sejpme exam
167. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations. They chose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describes a typical ….offensive. And defensive operation against powerful, …., and symmetrically organized forces combat power and protects sustainment functions?
168. During stability operations, it is critical to avoid inadvertently legitimizing an individual. Or organization in a country where no government exists. sejpme exam
169. During the enable civil authority phase of operations. The JFC may be …..to transfer responsibility of operations to another as the termination criteria.
170. Using the following image of the Joint Operations Phasing Model, provide a response. Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize for each of the phases below labeled “1” through “6”.
171. Identify the term (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize), that corresponds to each of the definitions below.
172. A _______ may be appropriate when the contemplated military operations exceed the scope of a single major operation.
173. Campaigns are _____.
174. Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase.
175. _____ generally are govern by various directives and agreements. And do not require a joint operation plan (OPLAN) or operation order (OPORD) for execution.
176. If the crisis is ) _____ that threatens regional stability, U.S. forces may intervene to restore or guarantee stability. sejpme exam
177. Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission.
178. _____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President. And Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency.
179. _____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to. And recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents.
180. _____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation. And rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance.
181. _____ is/are DoD’s unified effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces. And their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the U.S. Government.
182. _____ operations can include the provision of emergency infrastructure reconstruction.
183. The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation. sejpme exam
184. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities. Delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____.
185. _____ is generally limit in scope and duration. Because it is ….to supplement or complement efforts of civil authorities or agencies with the primary responsibility for providing assistance.
186. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost. JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations.
187. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information. Undermining a potential adversary’s will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces.
188. U. S. Forces may be …..to engage in several types of joint operations simultaneously, across a range of military operations. Commanders combine and sequence offensive, defensive, and _____ operations to achieve objectives.
189. Supporting the conditions for economic reconstruction is an action in the _____ phase.
190. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations. They choose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describe a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation. Against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces. And where the forward line of own troops focus combat power and protect sustainment functions?
191. _____ are DoD activities, normally in support of the United States Agency for International Development or the Department of State. Conducted outside the U.S., its territories, and possessions, to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation.
192. Military engagement occurs as part of _____, but also extends to interaction with domestic civilian authorities.
193. If the crisis revolves around _____ to a regional partner, combat commanders employ joint forces to deter aggression and signal U.S. commitment
194. Joint Logisticians coordinate sustained logistic readiness through the integrating functions of _____.
195. Which of the following key global providers is responsible for recruiting, organizing, supplying, and maintaining ready forces for deployment?
196. Which of the following statements describes the “supply” functional capability within joint logistics?
197. The purpose if field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul. Both entire systems and components and is directly ….to life cycle systems readiness.
198. Which of the following joint logistic imperatives links the mission, and commander’s intent? And operational objectives to core logistic capabilities, procedures, and organizations?
199. Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR?
200. Match each core capability with the correct description.
201. Within the Personnel Services Division, which supports organization is responsible for maintaining the personal data of Service members related to their employment?
202. Which two of the following describe J1 functions? (Select all that apply)
203. Once a Mission is ….by the SecDef, the joint task force (jtf) headquarters identifies its personnel requirements. These requirements are summarize in the _____.
204. The President and SecDef are responsible for assigning forces to …..combatant commands.
205. Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel ………to a joint task force (JTF) headquarters?
206. Staff Judge Advocates (SHAs) are responsible for _____/ (Select all that apply)
207. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 1 – Assignment is: sejpme exam
208. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 3 – Allocation is:
209. An environment in which operations may or may not be opposed at any point during deployment by forces. Or individuals not under the host government’s control in a/an _____environment.
210. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 2 – Appointment is: sejpme exam
211. Which stage of the protection process assembles and organizes national resources? To support national objectives in time of war or any other emergency?
212. Who is responsible for assigning forces and resources to combatant commands?
213. Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrative and logistic support for forces?
214. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply) sejpme exam
215. Which of the following reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) elements are …..as “enabling”? (Select all that apply.)
216. Redeployment encompasses which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.)
217. Which of the following are issues ….during redeployment planning? (Select all that apply.)
218. Which of the following is ….as the quality or capability of military forces that permits them. To transition from place to place while retaining their ability to fulfill their primary mission?
219. The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.)
220. The movement phase of deployment is …..of which of the following three segments?
221. Which of the following is describe as the ability to project the military instrument of national power?
222. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.)
223. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement. And integration (JRSOI) is define as the process of offloading, marshalling, and transporting personnel, equipment, and materiel?
224. During which phase of projection are forces and materiel ….to support another joint force commander’s operational requirements?
225. The operational environment is generally describe by which of the following conditions? sejpme exam
226. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement. And integration (JRSOI) is define as the process of synchronizing the transfer of capabilities into an operational commander’s force?
227. When identifying support activities during pre-redeployment, redeploying forces _____.
228. The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul. Both entire systems and components and is directly ….to life cycle systems readiness.