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PAR 100 Volume 2 Chapter 1 Quiz

1. All of the following encourage patient communication except.
2. Which of the following actions can you take to establish rapport early in the interview with your patient?
3. Which of the following in NOT part of the preliminary patient data.
4. Which of the following body positions best communicate that you care about your patients problems
5. When speaking with your patient you should
6. Which words or terms would you use while addressing your patient
7. Which of the following nonverbal cues demonstrates your sincerity to the patient
8. When questioning a female patient about abdominal pain about a possible pregnancy, you should
9. Which of the following is an example of an open ended question
10. Which of the following is an example of a closed ended question
11. Which of the following statements is true?
12. Which of the following statements about patient communication is true
13. When you repeat your patients words to encourage him to give more details, you should use the technique called
14. When you ask questions to refine a patients initially vague answer, you are using a technique called
15. When you detect an inconsistency in a patients story, which technique should you use to keep the patient from hiding is feelings
16. Which of the following statements can show your empathy towards the patient
17. All of the following actions can help make taking a history on a sensitive subject easier EXCEPT:
18. Elements of patient history include all of the following except:
19. Which of the following statements is true regarding a comprehensive patient history
20. Which of the following pieces of information should you record as preliminary data
21. Which of the following statements is an example of a chief complaint
22. An example of a primary problem is
23. A practical template for exploring various aspects of a chief complaint is
24. Which of the following questions is designed to find out about palliation
25. What is an example of referred pain
26. Questions to ask about a patients past medical history include all of the following areas except:
27. Which of the following questions gathers information about a patients current health status
28. What does the “C” in CAGE alcohol screening tool stand for
29. Areas in the patients current health status include all of the following except:
30. Which of the following actions would you take if confronted with a patient who is silent
31. Which of the following is a challenge to your ability to solicit patient information
32. The active listening technique of reflection involves
33. The history begins with an open ended question about your patients
34. A mnemonic for remembering the questions for determining the present illness is
35. Part of active listening includes maintaining eye contact and using appropriate gestures in a process known as
36. Which of the following establishes the foundation for good patient care
37. A sign or symptom that causes a patient or bystander to request medical help is known as the
38. When asking about a patients health status, you or your partner should ask about all of the following except:
39. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe depression

PAR 100 Volume 2 Chapter 2 Quiz

1. Physical exam techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
2. What technique does a Paramedic use to effectively evaluate for tenderness, rigidiy or crepitus?
3. A stethoscope is usually needed to hear all of the following sounds EXCEPT
4. When evaluating a patient’s skin condition, a paramedic should check for which of the following?
5. You are sent to the home of an insulin dependant diabetic female. You ask her to state her name, the month, and her address. This would be an example of
6. The physical exam begins when the Paramedic first
7. Skin color is best evaluated at the
8. Cyanosis is caused by increased
9. Examination of the eyes include checking the symmetry of:
10. Your patient was in a mvc (motor vehicle crash) but was not discovered until 3 hours later. When you examine him, you discover bilateral discolored skin over the mastoid process. You should suspect
11. Aterial occlusions, retinal hemorrhages, and cataracts can be visualized with a(an)
12. Using an otoscope you can examine a patient for _________ and ________.
13. You are examining a 50 yom, complaining of ear pain and a fever. You inspect the tympanic membrane and note it is a pearly grey/translucent color. You conclude the patient has
14. Nasal flaring in an indication of
15. Lesions found on the lips maydicate
16. If an abnormal finding is noted in the patient’s respiratory rate or pattern during the chest examination you should:
17. You are examing a 70 yof patient with an altered mental status. She is awake and can speak. You detect an odor of acetone and suspect that the patient is suffering from
18. A tear in the tracheo-bronchial tree or a pneumothorax can be characterized by ________ in the neck
19. The standard sequence for the physical exam is
20. A light, popping, nonmusical sound heard upon auscultation of the lungs is best describes as
21. A large harsh sound over the traches on ausculation with a stethescope suggests
22. When auscultating the breath sounds of a patient with pleurisy, you might expect to hear which of the following sounds
23. When auscultating the posterior chest, you should listen
24. Pulse quality refers to
25. You are assessing a 34 yof who appears in hypovolemic shock. You except her pulse to be
26. Which of the following is inlcuded in an examination of the cardiovascular system
27. During ventricular systole the ventricles contract while the
28. The technique of ________ involves careful, noninvasive, informed observation
29. The sounds of turbulent blood flow around a partial obstruction in the carotid sinuses are known as:
30. Which of the following body systems would not be evaluated during an abdominal exam
31. How should a patient by positioned for an abdominal exam
32. Dicoloration over the umbilicus, known as _______sign, ia a(an)__________indicator of intra-abdominal bleeding
33. Ausculation for bowel tones should be done
34. When evaluating a female’s patient genitalia, a paramedic must always provide for _______ as well as a ____________
35. To inspect and examine the anus, a Paramedic shoud place the patient
36. An elderly male is complaing of sob. You discover pitting edema that is 1/2″ deep. This is ______ pitting edema
37. You are examing a patient’s peripheral vasculature when you note he has no radial pulse. Your next step would be to
38. The crunching sounds of unlubricated skeletal parts rubbing agaisnt each other is best described as
39. Which of the following best describes the technique of evaluating plantar reflexes including Babinksi’s
40. Your patient is complaing of numbness and hand pain that wakes him. One explanation could be
41. Your patient has a swollen, painful leg. You flex the knee and palpate the calf, causing more pain. This might suggest
42. The loss of muscle tone that causes a limb or other part of the body to lay loosley is best described as
43. During a neurologic exam, you ask your patient to stick out his tongue. It deviates to the right. This may indicate a lesion to the patient’s _________ nerve
44. our patient is a 3 yom who presents with a fever. His parents state that he has had diarrhea and vomiting for 2 days. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. To best evaluate the patient’s peripheral perfusion status, you should examine his
45. Areas of a neuro exam include all of the following EXCEPT
46. The term stuporous best describes which of the following patient conditions
47. While speaking, your patient shifts from topic to topic, without realizing that his thoughts are not connected. This might be a sign of any of the following conditions EXCEPT
48. A patient who loses his balance while standing with his eyes closed and feet together for 20-30 seconds is exhibiting
49. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the physical exam of older infants and young children
50. when evaluating a patient with an altered mental status, which of the following tools would be of greatest benefit to your assessment of the condition 

PAR 100 Volume 2 Chapter 3 Quiz

1. In an infant the heart rate is best detected by palpating the brachial artery and?
2. A Pt. with skin described as “clammy” has
3. When assessing the chest any open wounds you locate should be?
4. Which of the following best describes why a focused history is important in responsive pt.?
5. Special emphasis should be placed on which of the following during your detailed physical exam?
6. You are en route to a hospital with a patient who appears stable following a MVC.  To detect changes in the patient’s condition witch of the following should be repeated during transport?
7. Which of the following should be searched for during the physical examination to determine if the patient has any specific pre-existing health conditions?
8. At the scene of a multiple vehicle collision, which of the following actions should you take first?
9. During the initial assessment your patient groons tries to turn away when you apply a sternal rub.  Otherwise there is no other response.  The Patients medical status can be described as?
10. Your patient presents with audible stridor in the upper airway.  Which of the following statements is true?
11. Which of the following choices is the sequence of steps when assessing a major trauma patient?
12. Your patient is unresponsive to painful stimulus and has snoring resp.  What is your next action?
13. You respond to a scene where a gunshot has been heard and there is a report of a man down you should enter the scene when?
14. Forming a general impression as part of your initial assessment helps you to?
15. All of the following are signs of inadequate breathing in an infant except?
16. You are assessing an adult patient.  When you palpate her wrist to locate a pulse, you don’t feel one.  You should immediately palpate?
17. The purpose of manual stabilization of the C-spine during the initial assessment of a trauma patient is to?
18. All of the following mechanisms of injury yield a high level suspicion for life threatening injury except?
19. You are treating a 27 year old asthmatic patient outside a bar when a groaning crowd becomes hostile and unruly.  To protect yourself, crew, and your patient you should?
20. Which of the following may indicate either cardiac tamponade or tension pneumothorax?
21. Your patient remains unresponsive after a painful stimulus is applied.  The family reports that the patient was found unconscious in bed, after complaining of a terrible headache.  Which of the following represents the correct sequence of action?
22. Which of the following best describes when you should perform a scene size up?
23. Which of the following best describes the differences in approach when assessing responsive and unresponsive patients?
24. A critical patients vital signs should be reassessed every
25. An important aspect of the ongoing assessment is to monitor and evaluate all of the following except the?
26. Rebound tenderness in the abdomen is a sign of potential?
27. When responding to a domestic dispute you should?
28. Which of the following patient conditions requires immediate transport?
29. You locate a 55 year old female lying supine on the side of the road.  There are no bystandards.  You determine the patient is unresponsive.  What should you do next?
30. While performing an initial assessment on a trauma patient.  Who has fallen from a roof, you discover absent lung sounds on the right side.  Which of the following actions should you take next?
31. You are evaluating a patient who was a restrained driver of a motor vehicle that crashed into the median barrier at 40 mph.  Now he is awake, alert, and oriented complaining of neck and back pain.  There is a bruise across his upper abdomen in the shape of a seat belt.  Based on this, you should assume he his?
32. Which of the following is not a consideration when evaluating the forces of the mechanism of injury?
33. Your patient is not alert, but is responsive to painful stimulus.  His airway is patent.  He is breathing at 8 times per minute.  Your next action should be to administer?
34. Orthostatic changes are present when which of the following occurs in response to the patients moving from a supine to a seated position?
35. When assessing a major trauma patient, which of the following statements is TRUE of the pt’s history?
36. Your 3 year old patient opens her eyes when you speak to her and can respond.  Her mental status is?
37. Which of the following problems is not critical to find during the initial assessment?
38. After determining that a person does not respond to verbal stimuli, your next action is to?
39. When responding to calls involving two vehicle collisions you must always  suspect?
40. Your patient appears awake but barely looks at you when you call his name.  His airway is open, and he is breathing at 34 times per minute.  He appears cyanotic.  What is your next action?

PAR 100 Volume 2 Chapter 4 Quiz

1. With your field diagnosis in mind, you develop a treatment plan for your patient. This part of the critical decision-making process is called:
2. Your patient is in cardiac arrest. You are focused on initiating CPR, managing the airway, and, if necessary, defibrillating as soon as possible.  Your step-by-step approach of data in this situation is best called:
3. Ways to remain clam under pressure include all of the following EXCEPT:
4. As you manage your patients condition, you mentally visualize a flow chart that describes a pathway for your treatment, based on the patients signs and symptoms. This format is known as:
5. After determining that your patient is in cardiac arrest, you and your crew begin resuscitation. CPR in begun, the airway is managed with a BVM and oral airway, and an IV is initiated.  Several medications are delivered, and the results are evaluated.  You determine that the patient needs an intervention that requires base contact.  Until now, you have been operating under:
6. The six “Rs” of putting together the critical decision making process include all of the following except:
7. The portion of critical thinking dedicated to assessing initial response to treatment and locating less than obvious problems is:
8. Paramedics can treat patients with the same techniques as other clinicians except they:
9. The term acuity refers to:
10. Treatments that can be performed before contacting the medical direction physician are known as:
11. After a call, you discuss the patient with the emergency department physician, comparing diagnoses and care plans. This is an example of:
12. The ability to critically evaluate a patients condition and formulate a treatment plan rests on all of the following fundamental knowledge and abilities except:
13. While people think under pressure, hormones can diminish their:
14. You arrive at a location and begin to read the scene by:
15. In critical decision making, addressing life threats as they are found is an example of:
16. The first step in critical thinking is to:
17. Changing or stopping interventions that are not working is an example of:
18. You are evaluating a patient who was in a motor vehicle collision. You determine that the patient is responsive to pain only.  He has a partially amputated arm at the elbow, a possible pelvic fracture, and a flail chest.  You classify this patients condition as:
19. Your 23 year old patient presents with relatively normal vital signs and is fully alert and oriented. Her only complaint is lower abdominal pain.  If you assume she is pregnant, you are:
20. Critical thinking is a thought process used to:
21. Your patient is emotionally distraught with a long, complicated medical history and presents with multiple problems. You consider the physical, emotional, and psychological aspects of her condition.  This type of data processing is called:
22. Which of the following choices is the correct sequence of steps in critical decision making?
23. Using knowledge and experience to diagnose patients and plan their treatment is called clinical:
24. After considering the information you have collected, you determine the most likely cause of your patients condition. This step in the critical decision making process is called:
25. During the ongoing assessment of a stable patient, you should recheck vital signs every 15 minutes. This is an example of:

PAR 100 Volume 2 Chapter 5

1. Specialized terms for radio use enhance communications by:
2. Without formal transfer of care to the receiving hospital, paramedics could be charged with:
3. Systems that transmit and receive on the same frequency are:
4. In most systems 911 called are first routed to the ______ who then sends the call to:
5. The main duties of the dispatcher after sending the responders and providing prehospital instructions include:
6. A(n) _______ system uses a computer to route transmissions to the first available frequency,
7. In addition to gathering the incident location, the dispatcher should also obtain the ____ from the caller.
8. The dispatcher’s directions to the caller for appropriate emergency measures are known as:
9. Which of the following is the key link in the chain that results in the best possible pt outcome?
10. The acronym PSAP stands for:
11. Which of the following best describes why it is important to use terminology that is widely accepted by the medical and emergency services communities?
12. _____ communications are condensed and require a decoder to translate.
13. The type of communication system that works like a telephone is
14. Cellular telephone systems use _____ to transmit communications
15. Using terminology widely accepted by the emergency services and medical community when giving a report to emergency department personnel is important because:

PAR 100 Volume 2 Chapter 6

1. The subjective narrative includes information that is elicited:
2. Writing false or malicious words to damage a persons character is called:
3. Seeking and recording pertinent negatives demonstrates which of the following:
4. The paramedics general impression is documented in the:
5. The prehospital care report should document all the following except:
6. You are completing your PCR and cannot remember the correct spelling of a medical term.  You should:
7. Which of the following best describes why abbreviations and acronyms can cause interpretation problems and confusion:
8. Which of the following would be most useful for paramedics to carry with them as an aid to proper documentation?
9. Why is it important for billing companies to have a complete PCR
10. Seeking and recording pertinent negatives demonstrates which of the following:
11. Which of the following statements is inappropriate for a PCR