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NURS 6512N Final Exam Week 11 – Advanced Health Assessment

100 out of 100 points  

1. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing?
2. To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested?
3. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called:
4. While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the:
5. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of:
6. The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg.
7. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n):
8. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings:
9. Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the:
10. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?
11. Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by:
12. Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests:
13. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:
14. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
15. A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect:
16. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of:
17. You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. What additional diagnostic testing would be required for her?
18. In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by:
19. A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with:
20. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate:
21. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point:
22. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?
23. You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with:
24. The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who:
25. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is:
26. The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the:
27. You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion?
28. If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a:
29. For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into:
30. Your patient’s chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include:
31. Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in:
32. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when:
33. You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive:
34. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to:
35. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, the position includes:
36. Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called:
37. You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:
38. While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding:
39. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include:
40. Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes?
41. A patient you are seeing in the emergency department for chest pain is suspected of having a myocardial infarction. During the health history interview of his family history, he relates that his father had died of “heart trouble.” The most important follow-up question you should pose is which of the following?
42. The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the:
43. The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about:
44. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests:
45. Tarry black stool should make you suspect:
46. Nancy Walker is a 16-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Nancy, apart from occasional colds, Nancy is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Nancy’s current problem?
47. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the:
48. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves:
49. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed:
50. The Mini-Mental State Examination: (NURS 6512N final exam)
51. When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the _____ sign.
52. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
53. When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother’s lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to:
54. An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with a fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection?
55. Inspection of the scrotum should reveal:
56. A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:
57. Bimanual examination of the uterus includes:
58. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:
59. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the:
60. A cervical polyp usually appears as a:
61. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:
62. At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:
63. Normal changes of the aging brain include:
64. A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to:
65. Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her:
66. Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel:
67. It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if:
68. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: (NURS 6512N final exam)
69. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as:
70. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is:
71. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is:
72. Kawasaki disease is suspect when assessments of a child reveal:
73. Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should:
74. You are assessing Mr. Z.’s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient’s edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as:
75. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would:
76. While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should:
77. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:
78. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:
79. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine:
80. During chest assessment, you note the patient’s voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e’s sound like a s. This sound is indicative of:
81. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide-based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: (NURS 6512N final exam)
82. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?
83. A patient in the deepest coma would be score a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
84. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the:
85. Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assess via the _____ test.
86. You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient’s neurologic status, you would:
87. Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
88. You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis’s heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is:
89. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:
90. Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of:
91. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:
92. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the:
93. Postural hypotension is define as a _____ when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings.
94. If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
95. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluate by having the patient:
96. Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify:
97.  When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination perform?
98. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site. (NURS 6512N final exam)
99. Your older clinic patient is be seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by:
100. The examiner percusses for a diaphragmatic excursion along the:
101. Check out our latest courses on PSYC 502 Week 3.