NURS-6512C/NURS-6512N Final Exam (Summer 2021 – 99/100)

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NURS-6512C-10/NURS-6512N-10-Advanced Health Assessment-2021-Summer-QTR- Term-wks-1-thru-11

Exam – Week 11 (99 out of 100)

  1. Darian is a 14-year-old adolescent who states his right testicle has a soft swollen mass. The testicle is not painful upon palpation. The right inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with:
  2. You order an ECG on a patient that c/o feeling heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath. Your ECG shows irregular heart rate and you determine that you need to call EMS immediately because this rhythm can cause death. What rhythm would you suspect the ECG is showing?
  3. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of:
  4. An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection?
  5. While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding:
  6. It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if:
  7. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves:
  8. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests:
  9. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as:
  10. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is:
  11. If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
  12. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
  13. Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify:
  14. Bimanual examination of the uterus includes:
  15. You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:
  16. The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who:
  17. Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of:
  18. To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with:
  19. For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into:
  20. A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:
  21. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called:
  22. Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries?
  23. The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the:
  24. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the:
  25. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to:
  26. Tarry black stool should make you suspect:
  27. A 40 yr old female presents to the clinic with complaints of low back and buttock pain. Pt states the buttock pain radiates from one side to the other. On examination, the patient is noted to have limited ROM of the shoulders, chest wall, hips, and knees. Upon xray, you find gross postural changes and there is a severe deformity of the vertebral column.
  28. If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a:
  29. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing?
  30. Postural hypotension is defined as a when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings.
  31. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:
  32. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine:
  33. The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:
  34. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed:
  35. You are reviewing an ECG of a 43 year old new patient. The patient has a history of second-degree heart block. The ECG shows the PR interval is increases with each beat until a QRS is dropped. What is this type of block called?
  36. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?
  37. Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
  38. The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:
  39. A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
  40. Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in:
  41. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate:
  42. When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother’s lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to:
  43. Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called:
  44. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is:
  45. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would:
  46. Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel:
  47. Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by:
  48. While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the:
  49. Adrian Thomas is a 19-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her father reports that Adrian, apart from occasional sinus infections, Adrian is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Adrian’s current problem?
  1. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms.
  2. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings:
  3. To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to:
  4. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is:
  5. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include:
  6. To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested?
  7. You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient’s neurologic status, you would:
  8. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:
  9. Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her:
  10. The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to mm Hg.
  11. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:
  12. The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the:
  13. The Denver II is a tool used to determine:
  14. A 25 yo AA female has come to the clinic because she has missed her menstrual period this month and 2 months before. She says her cycles are irregular and she wants to be on birth control to help regulate them. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to:
  15. Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should:
  16. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
  17. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the:
  18. 6-year-old male presents to the clinic to see the nurse practitioner with complaints of shortness of breath for 1 months, 15-pound weight gain and lower extremity edema. Vitals are as follows: HR: 120, Respirations 30, Blood Pressure: 138/90, BMI: 40; Oxygen saturation of 90%. On examination patient is noted to have jugular venous distention, enlarged liver, and crackles are noted on examination. A chest x-ray is completed and shows findings consistent with which diagnosis? Based on this scenario and imaging what is the most likely diagnosis?
  19. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:
  20. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes:
  21. Your patient’s chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include:
  22. You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. What additional diagnostic testing would be required for her?
  1. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:
  2. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?
  3. Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests:
  4. The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the:
  5. You are assessing Mr. Z.’s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient’s edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as:
  6. When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the sign.
  7. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:
  8. Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal:
  9. A cervical polyp usually appears as a:
  10. The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the:
  11. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:
  12. Normal changes of the aging brain include:
  13. You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with:
  14. You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis’s heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is:
  15. At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:
  16. The foramen ovale should close:
  17. In the adult, the apical impulse should be most visible when the patient is in what position?
  18. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the at each site.
  19. You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion?
  20. The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about:
  21. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the:
  22. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n):
  23. Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the:
  24. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point:
  25. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?
  26. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when:
  27. A chest radiography is performed on your patient that complains of having dyspnea, coughing productive sputum and chest pain. The image results shows consolidation and infiltrates. You compare this to your physical exam findings of distant or absent breath sounds and absent vocal fremitus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  28. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of:
  29. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as:
  30. Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes?