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MN 552 Unit 1 Quiz – 25 Points

1. In what year did was the Durham-Humphrey Amendment enacted which stated that a physician must prescribe drugs and a pharmacist must dispense them?
2. All of the following are schedule II medications except?
3. Which pregnancy category do medications fall under if animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, no adequate human studies, and that benefits may outweigh risks?
4. True or False: To be found negligent and responsible for harm resulting from your professional activities, courts generally require the presence of 4 conditions, to include duty, derelict, directly and damage?
5. True or False: Pharmacodynamics is the study of the body’s impact on the drug to include absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion?

MN 552 Unit 1 Quiz -25 Points

1. All of the following are variables that affect drug actions except?
2. Which medication route has a 100% bioavailability?
3. What must be present before a drug exerts its pharmacologic action on body cells?
4. True or False: Pharmacodynamics involves drug actions on target cells and the resulting alterations in cellular biochemical reactions?
5. True or False:  In older adults increased total body water and lean body mass-fat soluble meds stay with the patient longer?

MN 552 Unit 1 Quiz 25 Points

1. True or False: Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is the excessive secretion of gastric acid and a high incidence of ulcers. It is caused by gastrin-secreting tumors in pancreas, stomach or duodenum?
2. All of the following may cause Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease except?
3. True or False: The treatment for Helicobacter Pylori requires a combination of two antimicrobials and a PPI or an H2RA?
4. All of the following are antiemetic herbal remedies except?
5. All of the following are causes of diarrhea except:

MN 552 Unit 2 Quiz – 15 Points

2. Kelly has diarrhea and is wondering if she can take loperamide (Imodium) for the diarrhea. Loperamide:
3. Josie is a 5-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with a 48-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides IV fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?
4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease may be aggravated by the following medication that affects lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone:
5. Metoclopramide improves gastroesophageal reflux disease symptoms by:
6. Antacids treat gastroesophageal reflux disease by:
7. Erik presents with one golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive-treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?
8. Juakeem is a nasal methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) carrier. Treatment to eradicate nasal MRSA is mupirocin. Patient education regarding treating nasal MRSA includes:
9. When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?
10. Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:
11. Josie has severe cystic acne and is requesting treatment with Accutane. The appropriate treatment for her would be:
12. Appropriate initial treatment for psoriasis would be:
13. Twenty-year-old Annie comes to the clinic complaining of copious yellow-green eye discharge. Gram stain indicates she most likely has gonococcal conjunctivitis. While awaiting the culture results, the plan of care should be:
14. Sadie was prescribed betaxolol ophthalmic drops by her ophthalmologist to treat her glaucoma. Oral beta blockers should be avoided in patients who use ophthalmic beta blockers because:
15. David presents to the clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eye drops. The education regarding using cromolyn eye drops includes:

MN 552 Unit 3 Quiz – 20 Points

1. Jim presents with complaints of “heartburn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). An appropriate first-step therapy would be:
2. An elderly person has been prescribed lactulose for treatment of chronic constipation. Monitoring with long-term treatment would include:
3. The next step in treatment when a patient has been on proton pump inhibitors twice daily for 12 weeks and not improving is:
4. If a patient with H. pylori-positive peptic ulcer disease fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:
5. Erika has been prescribed isotretinoin (Accutane) by her dermatologist and is presenting to her primary care provider with symptoms of sadness and depression. A Beck’s Depression Scale indicates she has mild to moderate depression. What would be the best care for her at this point?
6. Jesse is prescribed tazarotene for his psoriasis. Patient education regarding topical tazarotene includes instructing them:
7. Nicolas is a football player who presents to the clinic with athlete’s foot. Patients with tinea pedis may be treated with:
8. Vanessa has been diagnosed with scabies. Her education would include:
9. Ciprofloxacin otic drops are contraindicated in:
10. Janie presents to the clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen include:

MN 552 Unit 4 Quiz – 20 Points

1. Digoxin levels need to be monitored closely when the following medication is started:
2. When educating patients who are starting on inhaled corticosteroids, the provider should tell them that:
3. Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they are:
4. Henry presents to clinic with a significantly swollen, painful great toe and is diagnosed with gout. Of the following, which would be the best treatment for Henry?
5. Patients whose total dose of prednisone will exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for:
6. Patients prescribed aspirin therapy require education regarding the signs of aspirin toxicity. An early sign of aspirin toxicity is:
7. Prior to developing a plan for the treatment of asthma, the patient’s asthma should be classified according to the NHLBI Expert Panel 3 guidelines. In adults mild-persistent asthma is classified as asthma symptoms that occur:
8. Patients with a COPD exacerbation may require:
9. Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by:
10. The most common bacterial pathogen in community-acquired pneumonia is:
11. The first-line antibiotic choice for a patient with comorbidities or who is immunosuppressed who has pneumonia and can be treated as an outpatient would be:
12. Wing-Sing is a 4-year-old patient who has suspected bacterial pneumonia. He has a temperature of 102°F, oxygen saturation level of 95%, and is taking fluids adequately. What would be appropriate initial treatment for his pneumonia?
13. Instructions for a patient who is starting nicotine replacement therapy include:
14. If prescribing bupropion (Zyban) for tobacco cessation, the instructions to the patient include:
15. The most appropriate smoking cessation prescription for pregnant women is:
16. Drug resistant tuberculosis (TB) is defined as TB that is resistant to:
17. Kaleb has extensively resistant tuberculosis (TB). Treatment for extensively resistant TB would include:
18. Ezekiel is a 9-year-old patient who lives in a household with a family member newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). To prevent Ezekiel from developing TB he should be treated with:
19. Myles is a 2-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with acute otitis media. He is afebrile and has not been treated with antibiotics recently. First-line treatment for his otitis media would include:
20. Jacob has been diagnosed with sinusitis. He is the parent of a child in daycare. Treatment for sinusitis in an adult who has a child in daycare is:

MN 552 Unit 5 Quiz – 20 Points

1. Elderly patients who are started on levothyroxine for thyroid replacement should be monitored for:
2. Potentially fatal granulocytopenia has been associated with treatment of hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. Patients should be taught to report:
3. Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:
4. Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
5. Sulfonylureas may be added to a treatment regimen for type 2 diabetics when lifestyle modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels. Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they:
6. Treatment with insulin for type 1 diabetics:
7. The American Heart Association states that people with diabetes have a 2- to 4-fold increase in the risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Treatments and targets that do not appear to decrease risk for micro- and macro-vascular complications include:
8. Drugs used to treat diabetic peripheral neuropathy include:
9. The goals of therapy when prescribing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) include reducing:
10. Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:
11. The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over age 70 years is:
12. In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:
13. When starting a patient on levothyroxine for hypothyroidism the patient will need follow-up measurement of thyroid function in:
14. Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:
15. Men who use transdermal testosterone gel (AndroGel) should be advised to avoid:
16. A 22-year-old woman receives a prescription for oral contraceptives. Education for this patient includes:
17. A 56-year-old woman is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. To treat her symptoms with the lowest adverse effects she should be prescribed:
18. Ashley comes to the clinic with a request for oral contraceptives. She has successfully used oral contraceptives before and has recently started dating a new boyfriend so would like to restart contraception. She denies recent intercourse and has a negative urine pregnancy test in the clinic. An appropriate plan of care would be:
19. 76. Women who are prescribed progestin-only contraception need education regarding which common adverse drug effects?
20. Oral emergency contraception (Plan B) is contraindicated in women who:

MN 552 Unit 6 Quiz – 20 Points

1. When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type 2 diabetes some form of insulin may be added to the treatment regimen to control blood glucose and limit complication risks. Which of the following statements is accurate based on research?
2. Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
3. Insulin preparations are divided into categories based on onset, duration, and intensity of action following subcutaneous injection. Which of the following insulin preparations has the shortest onset and duration of action?
4. The drugs recommended for older adults with type 2 diabetes include:
5. Women with an intact uterus should be treated with both estrogen and progestin due to:
6. Bisphosphonate administration education includes:
7. Long-term use of androgens requires specific laboratory monitoring of:
8. Patients taking hormonal contraceptives and hormone replacement therapy need to take the drug daily at the same time to prevent:
9. The mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevents pregnancy is:
10. When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones patient education would include:

MN 552 Unit 7 Quiz

1. Jonathan has been diagnosed with strep throat and needs a prescription for an antibiotic. He says the last time he had penicillin he developed a red, blotchy rash. An appropriate antibiotic to prescribe would be:
2. Nicholas has been diagnosed with type A influenza. Appropriate prescribing of oseltamivir (Tamiflu) would include:
3. The drug of choice for treatment of primary or secondary syphilis is:
4. When treating suspected gonorrhea in a nonpregnant patient, the patient should be concurrently treated for chlamydia with:
5. Lila is 24 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Treatment regimens for a pregnant patient with TB would include:
6. The principles of drug therapy for the treatment of tuberculosis include:
7. Jaheem is a 10-year-old low-risk patient with sinusitis. Treatment for a child with sinusitis is:
8. Alyssa is a 15-month-old patient who has been on amoxicillin for 2 days for acute otitis media. She is still febrile and there is no change in her tympanic membrane examination. What would be the plan of care for her?
9. Sally is a 16-year-old female with a urinary tract infection. She is healthy, afebrile, with no use of antibiotics in the previous 6 months and no drug allergies. An appropriate first-line antibiotic choice for her would be:
10. Jamie is a 24-year-old female with a urinary tract infection. She is healthy, afebrile, and her only drug allergy is sulfa, which gives her a rash. An appropriate first-line antibiotic choice for her would be:

MN 552 Unit 8 Quiz – 20 Points

1. Pong-tai is a 12-month-old child who is being treated with amoxicillin for acute otitis media. His parents call the clinic and say he has developed diarrhea. The appropriate action would be to:
2. To prevent further development of antibacterial resistance it is recommended that fluoroquinolones be reserved for treatment of:
3. Treatment for suspected gonorrhea is:
4. If a woman presents with recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis she may be treated with:
5. Bilal is a 5-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. His treatment would include:
6. Isabella has confirmed tuberculosis and is placed on a 6-month treatment regimen. The 6-month regimen consists of:
7. First-line therapy for a patient with acute otitis externa (swimmer’s ear) and an intact tympanic membrane includes:
8. The length of treatment for sinusitis in a low-risk patient should be:
9. Nicole is a 4-year-old female with a febrile urinary tract infection (UTI). She is generally healthy and has no drug allergies. Appropriate initial therapy for her UTI would be:
10. Juanita is a 28-year-old pregnant woman at 38 weeks’ gestation who is diagnosed with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI). She is healthy with no drug allergies. Appropriate first-line therapy for her UTI would be:

MN 552 Unit 9 Quiz

1. Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the NP should assess for:
2. Which of the following create a higher risk for digoxin toxicity? Both the cause and the reason for it must be correct.
3. Juanita had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and was on heparin in the hospital and was discharged on warfarin. She asks her primary care provider NP why she was getting both medications while in the hospital. The best response is to:
4. Robert, age 51 years, has been told by his primary care provider (PCP) to take an aspirin a day. Why would this be recommended?
5. Education of patients who are taking warfarin includes discussing their diet. Instructions include:
6. Pernicious anemia is treated with:
7. Valerie presents to the clinic with menorrhagia. Her hemoglobin is 10.2 and her ferritin is 15 ng/mL. Initial treatment for her anemia would be:
8. Kyle has Crohn’s disease and has a documented folate deficiency. Drug therapy for folate deficiency anemia is:
9. Angina is produced by an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply (MOS) and demand (MOD) in the myocardium. Which of the following drugs help to correct this imbalance by increasing MOS?
10. The rationale for prescribing calcium blockers for angina can be based on the need for:
11. Which of the following drugs has been associated with increased risk for myocardial infarction in women?
12. Increased life expectancy for patients with heart failure has been associated with the use of:
13. Digoxin has a very limited role in treatment of heart failure. It is used mainly for patients with:
14. Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?
15. What is considered the order of statin strength from lowest effect to highest?
16. First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:
17. Han is a 48-year-old diabetic with hyperlipidemia and high triglycerides. His LDL is 112 mg/dL and he has not tolerated statins. He warrants a trial of a:
18. Hypertensive African Americans are typically listed as not being as responsive to which drug groups?
19. Because of its action on various body systems, the patient taking a thiazide or loop diuretic may also need to receive the following supplement:
20. An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

MN 552 Unit 8 Quiz -20 Points

1. Charlie is a 65-year-old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Doxazosin has been chosen to treat his hypertension because it:
2. Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in a beta1-selective blocker?
3. Beta blockers have favorable effects on survival and disease progression in heart failure. Treatment should be initiated when the:
4. You are treating a patient with a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient’s wife mentions difficulty with transportation to the clinic. Which medication is the best choice?
5. Antonia is a 3-year-old child who has a history of status epilepticus. Along with her routine antiseizure medication, she should also have a home prescription for_________ to be used for an episode of status epilepticus.
6. Dwayne has recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels include:
7. Kasey fractured his ankle in two places and is asking for medication for his pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be:
8. Jack, age 8, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:
9. An appropriate first-line drug to try for mild to moderate generalized anxiety disorder would be:
10. David is a 34-year-old patient who is starting on paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. David’s education regarding his medication would include:
11. An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:
12. The longer-term Xanax patient comes in and states they need a higher dose of the medication. They deny any additional, new, or accelerating triggers of their anxiety. What is the probable reason?
13. A first-line drug for abortive therapy in simple migraine is:
14. Xi, a 54-year-old female, has a history of migraines that do not respond well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend. Appropriate decision making would be:
15. Kelly is a 14-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with a classic migraine. She says she is having a headache two to three times a month. The initial plan would be:
16. James has been diagnosed with cluster headaches. Appropriate acute therapy would be:
17. If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (e.g., rest, ice, compression, and elevation) are insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which order of use?
18. Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?
19. The Pain Management Contract is appropriate for:
20. Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

MN 552 Unit 9 Quiz – 20 Points

1. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
2. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
3. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
4. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
5. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration prior to prescribing:
6. Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
7. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
8. A good history of herb and supplement use is critical before prescribing because approximately ____ % of patients in the United States are using herbal products.
9. A potential harmful effect on patients who take some herbal medication is:
10. A thorough understanding of herbs is critical to patient safety. An example is the use of cinnamon to treat type II diabetes. It is important the patient uses Ceylon cinnamon, as the commercially available cassia cinnamon contains:
11. Traditional Chinese medicine utilizes yin (cooling) versus yang (warming) in assessing and treating disease. Menopause is considered a time of imbalance, therefore the Chinese herbalist would prescribe:
12. According to traditional Chinese medicine, if a person who has a fever is given a herb that is yang in nature, such as golden seal, the patient’s illness will:
13. In Ayurvedic medicine, treatment is based on the patient’s dominant dosha, which is referred to as the person’s:
14. When melatonin is used to induce sleep, the recommendation is that the patient:
15. In the United States, over-the-counter drugs are regulated by:
16. As drugs near the end of their patent, pharmaceutical companies may apply for the drug to change to over-the-counter status in order to:
17. The ailment that generates the greatest over-the-counter annual drug sales is:
18. Common over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen:
19. When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare ups. This is an example of:
20. Michael asks you about why some drugs are over-the-counter and some are prescription. You explain that in order for a drug to be approved for over-the-counter use the drug must:

MN 552 Unit 10 Final Exam – 400 Points

1. There is often cross-sensitivity and cross-resistance between penicillins and cephalosporins because:
2. The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina. Angina that occurs with unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is class:
3. Class I recommendations for stage A heart failure include:
4. Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes:
5. Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions?
6. What is the role of calcium supplements when patients take bisphosphonates?
7. Laboratory values are actually different for TSH when screening for thyroid issues and when used for medication management. Which of the follow holds true?
8. Preventative therapy for cluster headaches includes:
9. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
10. The dosage of Vitamin B12 to initially treat pernicious anemia is:
11. The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:
12. Rabi is being prescribed phenytoin for seizures. Monitoring includes assessing:
13. Isosorbide dinitrate is prescribed for a patient with chronic stable angina. This drug is administered twice daily, but the schedule is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. because:
14. Leonard is completing a 6-month regimen to treat tuberculosis (TB). Monitoring of a patient on TB therapy includes:
15. Allison is an 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes. She is on NPH twice daily and Novolog before meals. She usually walks for 40 minutes each evening as part of her exercise regimen. She is beginning a 30-minute swimming class three times a week at 1 p.m. What is important for her to do with this change in routine?
16. First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:
17. Rose is a 3-year-old patient with an upper respiratory infection (URI). Treatment for her URI would include:
18. Conjunctivitis in a child that is accompanied by acute otitis media is treated with:
19. The first-line drug choice for a previously healthy adult patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia would be:
20. Elena Vasquez’s primary language is Spanish, and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
21. Male patients who should not be prescribed phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors include:
22. Education of women who are being treated with ophthalmic antibiotics for conjunctivitis includes:
23. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
24. Goals when treating tuberculosis include:
25. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
26. Which diuretic agents typically do not need potassium supplementation?
27. Howard is a 72-year-old male who occasionally takes diphenhydramine for his seasonal allergies. Monitoring for this patient taking diphenhydramine would include assessing for:
28. Which of the following holds true for the pharmacokinetics of women?
29. Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:
30. To improve actual effectiveness of oral contraceptives women should be educated regarding:
31. Which of the following patients may be treated with a 3-day course of therapy for their urinary tract infection?
32. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
33. The action of “gliptins” is different from other antidiabetic agents because they:
34. The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include:
35. Which of the following is a primary benefit of the use of computerized provider order entry for patient medications?
36. Chee is a 15-month-old male whose screening hemoglobin is 10.4 g/dL. Treatment for his anemia would be:
37. Medications are typically started for angina patients when:
38. When a pharmacoeconomic analysis looks at two or more treatment alternatives that are considered equal in efficacy and compares the costs of each it is referred to as:
39. Sally has been prescribed aspirin 320 mg per day for her atrial fibrillation. She also takes aspirin four or more times a day for arthritis pain. What are the symptoms of aspirin toxicity for which she would need to be evaluated?
40. Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include:
41. Monitoring for patients who are on long-term antifungal therapy with ketoconazole includes:
42. The role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to:
43. The drug of choice for type 2 diabetics is metformin. Metformin:
44. The drug of choice for treatment of early latent or tertiary syphilis is:
45. If an adult patient with comorbidities cannot reliably take oral antibiotics to treat pneumonia, an appropriate initial treatment option would be:
46. Being competent in the use of information technology in clinical practice is expected in professional nurses. Advanced practice competence includes the ability to:
47. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy. While treatment of heart failure during pregnancy is best done by a specialist, which of the following drug classes is considered to be safe, at least in the later parts of pregnancy?
48. Henry is 82 years old and takes two aspirin every morning to treat the arthritis pain in his back. He states the aspirin helps him to “get going” each day. Lately he has had some heartburn from the aspirin. After ruling out an acute GI bleed, what would be an appropriate course of treatment for Henry?
49. Developmental variation in renal function has what impact on prescribing for infants and children?
50. True contraindications to diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP or Tdap) vaccine include:
51. If a patient with symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease states that he has been self-treating at home with OTC ranitidine daily, the appropriate treatment would be:
52. Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido:
53. Opiates are used mainly to treat moderate to severe pain. Which of the following is NOT true about these drugs?
54. Sophie presents to the clinic with a malodorous vaginal discharge and is confirmed to have Trichomonas infection. Treatment for her would include:
55. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
56. Sadie is a 90-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie?
57. A potentially life-threatening adverse response to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?
58. The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is:
59. IV forms of bisphosphonates are used for all the following except:
60. When prescribing a tetracycline or quinolone antibiotic it is critical to instruct the patient:
61. While on testosterone replacement, hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored. Levels suggestive of excessive erythrocytosis or abuse are:
62. Instructions for the use of nicotine gum include:
63. Patients who are on chronic long-term proton pump inhibitor therapy require monitoring for:
64. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
65. Which the following persons should not have a statin medication ordered?
66. Harold, a 42-year-old African American, has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following asthma medications should be used cautiously, if at all?
67. Vicky, age 56 years, comes to the clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over 2 years for migraines and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?
68. Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may potentiate:
69. When considering which cholesterol-lowering drug to prescribe, which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment?
70. Patrick is a 10-year-old patient who presents with uncomfortable constipation. Along with diet changes, a laxative is ordered to provide more rapid relief of constipation. An appropriate choice of medication for a 10-year-old child would be:
71. Absolute contraindications that clinicians must consider when initiating estrogen therapy include:
72. When discussing with a patient the different start methods used for oral combined contraceptives, the advantage of a Sunday start over the other start methods is:
73. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
74. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which is part of the 2006 U.S. Patriot Act:
75. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
76. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
77. Patient education for a patient who is prescribed antibiotics for sinusitis includes:
78. Why is the consistency of taking paroxetine (Paxil) and never running out of medication more important than with most other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
79. Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:
80. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
81. Which of the following statements is true about acute pain?
82. Jamison has been prescribed citalopram (Celexa) to treat his depression. Education regarding how quickly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants work would be:
83. Pharmacoeconomics is:
84. Larry is taking allopurinol to prevent gout. Monitoring of a patient who is taking allopurinol includes:
85. The Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act:
86. All of the following statements about the Beer’s List are true except:
87. Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
88. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
89. Varenicline (Chantix) may be prescribed for tobacco cessation. Instructions to the patient who is starting varenicline include:
90. Lisa is a healthy nonpregnant adult woman who recently had a urinary tract infection (UTI). She is asking about drinking cranberry juice to prevent a recurrence of the UTI. The correct answer to give her would be:
91. Patients who are treated with greater than 100 grams per week of topical calcipotriene for psoriasis need to be monitored for:
92. A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team who will most likely treat her with:
93. An Investigational New Drug is filed with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration:
94. Jim is being treated for hypertension. Because he has a history of heart attack, the drug chosen is atenolol. Beta blockers treat hypertension by:
95. The most cost-effective treatment for two or three impetigo lesions on the face is:
96. An acceptable first-line treatment for peptic ulcer disease with positive H. pylori test is:
97. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
98. Sook has been prescribed gabapentin to treat neuropathic pain and is complaining of feeling depressed and having “strange” thoughts. The appropriate initial action would be:
99. The optimal maximum time frame for HRT or estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) is:
100. Education for patients who use an inhaled beta-agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid includes: